Polio - proof that similar symptoms misdiagnosed, changing diagnosis after vaccine in the 50s/60s?
I looked in the archives, found this http://s45.photobucket.com/albums/f7...ent=img619.jpg also found this http://www.cdc.gov/ncidod/eid/vol9no7/03-0129.htm and this http://www.foundationforhealthchoice...lioarticle.pdf but I´m still having trouble with figuring this out. I get the sense from reading that it´s ´suspected´ (proven?) that incidences of polio back in the 40s/50s/60s were many times actually something else and just being misdiagnosed. And/or that after the vaccine, the diagnosis changed. But are there more references that back this up? And how, exactly, DID they test for polio back then? Did they just go by symptoms or did they actually test? And did they test everyone suspected, or only the ones that were paralytic? Links? And how does this mess with the numbers, and that polio dropped dramatically after the vaccine was introduced? This would just be the OPV, correct as they found the killed virus didn´t do it? I hope my questions make sense. thanks!
